Many hospitals are described in the BioSense case study as being reluctant to implement BioSense. The organizational challenges that dissuade some hospitals from using the BioSense program include:

Many hospitals are described in the BioSense case study as being reluctant to implement BioSense. The organizational challenges that dissuade some hospitals from using the BioSense program include:




a. the incompatibility of the hospital's information systems to the BioSense system.
b. the costs of standardizing information.
c. concerns regarding responsibility for managing a pandemic.
d. all of the above.




Answer: C

Executive support systems are information systems that support the:

Executive support systems are information systems that support the:




a. long-range planning activities of senior management.
b. knowledge and data workers in an organization.
c. decision-making and administrative activities of middle managers.
d. day-to-day processes of production.








Answer: A

A relocation control system that reports summaries on the total moving, house-hunting, and home financing costs for employees in all company divisions would fall into the category of:

A relocation control system that reports summaries on the total moving, house-hunting, and home financing costs for employees in all company divisions would fall into the category of: 





a. knowledge management systems.
b. transaction processing systems.
c. executive-support systems.
d. management information systems.








Answer: D

Compensation analysis is an example of:

Compensation analysis is an example of:



a. finance and accounting information systems.
b. enterprise application information systems.
c. human resources information systems.
d. sales and marketing information systems.








Answer: C

Pricing analysis is an example of:

Pricing analysis is an example of:





a. a sales and marketing information system serving senior management.
b. a sales and marketing information system serving middle management.
c. a finance and accounting information system serving senior management.
d. a finance and accounting information system serving middle management.









Answer: B

How would you best categorize the types of systems Kia implemented in their defect early warning system?

How would you best categorize the types of systems Kia implemented in their defect early warning system?



a. A TPS to store basic data about vehicles, parts, sales, and warranties, and an MIS to create reports on the data
b. A TPS to store basic data about vehicles, parts, sales, and warranties, and a DSS for high-level analysis and forecasts
c. An MIS to create reports from existing TPSs and a DSS for high-level analysis and forecasts
d. A production and manufacturing system to record basic data about faulty parts and a DSS for high-level analysis and forecasts








Answer: C

Kia's difficulties in getting a complete picture of defects in their cars illustrates:

Kia's difficulties in getting a complete picture of defects in their cars illustrates:





a. the difficulties in creating accurate tracking systems.
b. the challenges posed by having multiple information systems that are not linked.
c. the difficulties in complying with government regulations.
d. the compromises made in drawing accurate reports from poorly planned information systems.








Answer: B

An organizational element in the UPS tracking system described in the chapter is:

An organizational element in the UPS tracking system described in the chapter is:




a. the specification of procedures for identifying packages with sender and recipient information.
b. monitoring service levels.
c. promoting the company strategy of low-cost, superior service.
d. the use of handheld computers and networks for managing package delivery.







Answer: A

The three principle levels within a business organization hierarchy are:

The three principle levels within a business organization hierarchy are:



a. senior management, operational management, and service workers.
b. senior management, middle management, and operational management.
c. senior management, operational management, and information systems.
d. senior management, middle management, and service workers.







Answer: B

Key corporate assets are:

Key corporate assets are:




a. intellectual property, core competencies, and financial and human assets.
b. production technologies and business processes for sales, marketing, and finance.
c. knowledge and the firm's tangible assets, such as goods or services.
d. time and knowledge.






Answer: A

Psychologists study information systems with an eye to understanding:

Psychologists study information systems with an eye to understanding:




a. how systems affect individuals, groups, and organizations.
b. how human decision makers perceive and use formal information.
c. how new information systems change the control and cost structures within the firm.
d. the production of digital goods.







Answer: B

Sociologists study information systems with an eye to understanding:

Sociologists study information systems with an eye to understanding:



a. how systems affect individuals, groups, and organizations.
b. how human decision makers perceive and use formal information.
c. how new information systems change the control and cost structures within the firm.
d. the production of digital goods.









Answer: A

A corporation that funds a political action committee, which in turn promotes and funds a political candidate who agrees with the values of that corporation, could be seen as investing in which main category of complementary assets?

A corporation that funds a political action committee, which in turn promotes and funds a political candidate who agrees with the values of that corporation, could be seen as investing in which main category of complementary assets?




a. Managerial
b. Governmental
c. Social
d. Organizational







Answer: C

The fact that online advertising revenues are growing at 30% a year, while offline traditional advertising is growing at about 5% a year, suggests that:

The fact that online advertising revenues are growing at 30% a year, while offline traditional advertising is growing at about 5% a year, suggests that:



a. Internet advertising is very inexpensive.
b. offline traditional advertising is not very effective.
c. the Internet is transforming the traditional advertising business model.
d. new technologies are more efficient at selling to customers.









Answer: C

Based on the examples in the chapter, if you were asked to formulate a plan for a regional drive-in restaurant chain's efforts to use information technology to attract customers, what would be the best use of information technology from the list below:

Based on the examples in the chapter, if you were asked to formulate a plan for a regional drive-in restaurant chain's efforts to use information technology to attract customers, what would be the best use of information technology from the list below:




a. Use IT to increase supplier loyalty.
b. Use IT to increase operational efficiency.
c. Use IT to create new products and business models.
d. Use IT to help survive government reporting requirements.
e. Use IT to achieve customer intimacy.








Answer: E

For the following question, match the key event of meiosis with the stages listed below. I. Prophase I V. Prophase II II. Metaphase I VI. Metaphase II III. Anaphase I VII. Anaphase II IV. Telophase I VIII. Telophase II

For the following question, match the key event of meiosis with the stages listed below.
I. Prophase I V. Prophase II
II. Metaphase I VI. Metaphase II
III. Anaphase I VII. Anaphase II
IV. Telophase I VIII. Telophase II 



Tetrads of chromosomes are aligned at the equator of the spindle; alignment determines independent assortment.

A) I
B) II
C) IV
D) VI
E) VIII


Answer: B


Synaptonemal complexes form or are still present. A) I only 

B) I and IV only
C) I and VIII only
D) II and VI only
E) I, II, III, and IV only


Answer: A


Centromeres of sister chromatids disjoin and chromatids separate. 

A) II 
B) III
C) IV
D) V
E) VII


Answer: E

A tetrad includes which of the following sets of DNA strands?

A tetrad includes which of the following sets of DNA strands? 





A) two single-stranded chromosomes that have synapsed
B) two sets of sister chromatids that have synapsed
C) four sets of sister chromatids
D) four sets of unique chromosomes
E) eight sets of sister chromatids





Answer: B

Experiments with cohesins have found that

Experiments with cohesins have found that 





A) cohesins are protected from destruction throughout meiosis I and II.
B) cohesins are cleaved from chromosomes at the centromere before anaphase I.
C) cohesins are protected from cleavage at the centromere during meiosis I.
D) a protein cleaves cohesins before metaphase I.
E) a protein that cleaves cohesins would cause cellular death.







Answer: C

Whether during mitosis or meiosis, sister chromatids are held together by proteins referred to as cohesins. Such molecules must have which of the following properties?

Whether during mitosis or meiosis, sister chromatids are held together by proteins referred to as cohesins. Such molecules must have which of the following properties? 





A) They must persist throughout the cell cycle.
B) They must be removed before meiosis can begin.
C) They must be removed before anaphase can occur.
D) They must reattach to chromosomes during G1.
E) They must be intact for nuclear envelope reformation.






Answer: C

If an organism is diploid and a certain gene found in the organism has 18 known alleles (variants), then any given organism of that species can/must have which of the following?

If an organism is diploid and a certain gene found in the organism has 18 known alleles (variants), then any given organism of that species can/must have which of the following? 




A) at most, 2 alleles for that gene
B) up to 18 chromosomes with that gene
C) up to 18 genes for that trait
D) a haploid number of 9 chromosomes
E) up to, but not more than, 18 different traits






Answer: A

Independent assortment of chromosomes occurs.

Independent assortment of chromosomes occurs. 






A) The statement is true for mitosis only.
B) The statement is true for meiosis I only.
C) The statement is true for meiosis II only.
D) The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis I.
E) The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis II.





Answer: B

Chromatids are separated from each other.

Chromatids are separated from each other. 





A) The statement is true for mitosis only.
B) The statement is true for meiosis I only.
C) The statement is true for meiosis II only.
D) The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis I.
E) The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis II.






Answer: E

A cell divides to produce two daughter cells that are genetically different.

A cell divides to produce two daughter cells that are genetically different. 






A) The statement is true for mitosis only.
B) The statement is true for meiosis I only.
C) The statement is true for meiosis II only.
D) The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis I.
E) The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis II.







Answer: B

Which of the following happens at the conclusion of meiosis I?

Which of the following happens at the conclusion of meiosis I? 






A) Homologous chromosomes are separated.
B) The chromosome number per cell is conserved.
C) Sister chromatids are separated.
D) Four daughter cells are formed.
E) The sperm cells elongate to form a head and a tail end.






Answer: A

When does the synaptonemal complex disappear?

When does the synaptonemal complex disappear? 




A) late prophase of meiosis I
B) during fertilization or fusion of gametes
C) early anaphase of meiosis I
D) mid-prophase of meiosis II
E) late metaphase of meiosis II





Answer: A

How do cells at the completion of meiosis compare with cells that have replicated their DNA and are just about to begin meiosis?

How do cells at the completion of meiosis compare with cells that have replicated their DNA and are just about to begin meiosis? 






A) They have twice the amount of cytoplasm and half the amount of DNA.
B) They have half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.
C) They have the same number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.
D) They have half the number of chromosomes and one-fourth the amount of DNA.
E) They have half the amount of cytoplasm and twice the amount of DNA.





Answer: D

After telophase I of meiosis, the chromosomal makeup of each daughter cell is

After telophase I of meiosis, the chromosomal makeup of each daughter cell is 





A) diploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of a single chromatid.
B) diploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids.
C) haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of a single chromatid.
D) haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids.
E) tetraploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids.



Answer: D

In a human karyotype, chromosomes are arranged in 23 pairs. If we choose one of these pairs, such as pair 14, which of the following do the two chromosomes of the pair have in common?

In a human karyotype, chromosomes are arranged in 23 pairs. If we choose one of these pairs, such as pair 14, which of the following do the two chromosomes of the pair have in common? 




A) Length and position of the centromere only.
B) Length, centromere position, and staining pattern only.
C) Length, centromere position, staining pattern, and traits coded for by their genes.
D) Length, centromere position, staining pattern, and DNA sequences.
E) They have nothing in common except they are X-shaped.





Answer: C

The somatic cells of a privet shrub each contain 46 chromosomes. To be as different as they are from human cells, which have the same number of chromosomes, which of the following must be true?

The somatic cells of a privet shrub each contain 46 chromosomes. To be as different as they are from human cells, which have the same number of chromosomes, which of the following must be true? 





A) Privet cells cannot reproduce sexually.
B) Privet sex cells have chromosomes that can synapse with human chromosomes in the laboratory.
C) Genes of privet chromosomes are significantly different than those in humans.
D) Privet shrubs must be metabolically more like animals than like other shrubs.
E) Genes on a particular privet chromosome, such as the X, must be on a different human chromosome, such as number 18.






Answer: C

Which of the following might result in a human zygote with 45 chromosomes?

Which of the following might result in a human zygote with 45 chromosomes? 






A) an error in either egg or sperm meiotic anaphase
B) failure of the egg nucleus to be fertilized by the sperm
C) fertilization of a 23 chromosome human egg by a 22 chromosome sperm of a closely related species
D) an error in the alignment of chromosomes on the metaphase plate
E) lack of chiasmata in prophase I






Answer: A

If a cell has completed the first meiotic division and is just beginning meiosis II, which of the following is an appropriate description of its contents?

If a cell has completed the first meiotic division and is just beginning meiosis II, which of the following is an appropriate description of its contents? 





A) It has half the amount of DNA as the cell that began meiosis.
B) It has the same number of chromosomes but each of them has different alleles than another cell from the same meiosis.
C) It has half the chromosomes but twice the DNA of the originating cell.
D) It has one-fourth the DNA and one-half the chromosomes as the originating cell.
E) It is identical in content to another cell from the same meiosis.





Answer: A

Which of the following best describes a karyotype?

Which of the following best describes a karyotype? 






A) a pictorial representation of all the genes for a species
B) a display of each of the chromosomes of a single cell
C) the combination of all the maternal and paternal chromosomes of a species
D) the collection of all the chromosomes in an individual organism
E) a photograph of all the cells with missing or extra chromosomes





Answer: B

A karyotype results from which of the following?

A karyotype results from which of the following? 






A) a natural cellular arrangement of chromosomes in the nucleus
B) an inherited ability of chromosomes to arrange themselves
C) the ordering of human chromosome images
D) the cutting and pasting of parts of chromosomes to form the standard array
E) the separation of homologous chromosomes at metaphase I of meiosis





Answer: C

A triploid cell contains three sets of chromosomes. If a cell of a usually diploid species with 42 chromosomes per cell is triploid, this cell would be expected to have which of the following?

A triploid cell contains three sets of chromosomes. If a cell of a usually diploid species with 42 chromosomes per cell is triploid, this cell would be expected to have which of the following? 





A) 63 chromosomes in 31 1/2 pairs
B) 63 chromosomes in 21 sets of 3
C) 63 chromosomes, each with three chromatids
D) 21 chromosome pairs and 21 unique chromosomes





Answer: B

The karyotype of one species of primate has 48 chromosomes. In a particular female, cell division goes awry and she produces one of her eggs with an extra chromosome (25). The most probable source of this error would be a mistake in which of the following?

The karyotype of one species of primate has 48 chromosomes. In a particular female, cell division goes awry and she produces one of her eggs with an extra chromosome (25). The most probable source of this error would be a mistake in which of the following? 





A) mitosis in her ovary
B) metaphase I of one meiotic event
C) telophase II of one meiotic event
D) telophase I of one meiotic event
E) either anaphase I or II






Answer: E

Which of the following is an example of alternation of generations?

Which of the following is an example of alternation of generations? 





A) A grandparent and grandchild each have dark hair, but the parent has blond hair.
B) A diploid plant (sporophyte) produces, by meiosis, a spore that gives rise to a multicellular, haploid pollen grain (gametophyte).
C) A diploid animal produces gametes by meiosis, and the gametes undergo fertilization to produce a diploid zygote.
D) A haploid mushroom produces gametes by mitosis, and the gametes undergo fertilization, which is immediately followed by meiosis.
E) A diploid cell divides by mitosis to produce two diploid daughter cells, which then fuse to produce a tetraploid cell.




Answer: B

Which of these statements is false?

Which of these statements is false? 





A) In humans, each of the 22 maternal autosomes has a homologous paternal chromosome.
B) In humans, the 23rd pair, the sex chromosomes, determines whether the person is female (XX) or male (XY).
C) Single, haploid (n) sets of chromosomes in ovum and sperm unite during fertilization, forming a diploid (2n), single-celled zygote.
D) At sexual maturity, ovaries and testes produce diploid gametes by meiosis.
E) Sexual life cycles differ with respect to the relative timing of meiosis and fertilization.






Answer: D

Eukaryotic sexual life cycles show tremendous variation. Of the following elements, which do all sexual life cycles have in common? I. Alternation of generations II. Meiosis III. Fertilization IV. Gametes V. Spores

Eukaryotic sexual life cycles show tremendous variation. Of the following elements, which do all sexual life cycles have in common?
I. Alternation of generations
II. Meiosis
III. Fertilization
IV. Gametes
V. Spores 





A) I, IV, and V
B) I, II, and IV
C) II, III, and IV
D) II, IV, and V
E) I, II, III, IV, and V





Answer: C

Which of the following is true of a species that has a chromosome number of 2n = 16?

Which of the following is true of a species that has a chromosome number of 2n = 16? 






A) The species is diploid with 32 chromosomes per cell.
B) The species has 16 sets of chromosomes per cell.
C) Each cell has eight homologous pairs.
D) During the S phase of the cell cycle there will be 32 separate chromosomes.
E) A gamete from this species has four chromosomes.






Answer: C

The human X and Y chromosomes

The human X and Y chromosomes 





A) are both present in every somatic cell of males and females alike.
B) are of approximately equal size and number of genes.
C) are almost entirely homologous, despite their different names.
D) include genes that determine an individual's sex.
E) include only genes that govern sex determination.






Answer: D

Which of the following defines a genome?

Which of the following defines a genome? 





A) representation of a complete set of a cell's polypeptides
B) the complete set of an organism's polypeptides
C) the complete set of a species' polypeptides
D) a karyotype
E) the complete set of an organism's genes






Answer: E

Which of the following is a true statement about sexual vs. asexual reproduction?

Which of the following is a true statement about sexual vs. asexual reproduction? 





A) Asexual reproduction, but not sexual reproduction, is characteristic of plants and fungi.
B) In sexual reproduction, individuals transmit 50% of their genes to each of their offspring.
C) In asexual reproduction, offspring are produced by fertilization without meiosis.
D) Sexual reproduction requires that parents be diploid.
E) Asexual reproduction produces only haploid offspring.







Answer: B

In the human species, all somatic cells have 46 chromosomes. Which of the following can also be true?

In the human species, all somatic cells have 46 chromosomes. Which of the following can also be true? 





A) A plant species (privet shrubs) has 46 chromosomes per cell.
B) Some adult humans have 69 chromosomes per cell.
C) Some adult humans have 23 chromosomes per cell.
D) A certain fungal species has only one chromosome per cell.
E) A certain bacterial species has 23 chromosomes.





Answer: A

If a horticulturist breeding gardenias succeeds in having a single plant with a particularly desirable set of traits, which of the following would be her most probable and efficient route to establishing a line of such plants?

If a horticulturist breeding gardenias succeeds in having a single plant with a particularly desirable set of traits, which of the following would be her most probable and efficient route to establishing a line of such plants? 





A) Backtrack through her previous experiments to obtain another plant with the same traits.
B) Breed this plant with another plant with much weaker traits.
C) Clone the plant asexually to produce an identical one.
D) Force the plant to self-pollinate to obtain an identical one.
E) Add nitrogen to the soil of the offspring of this plant so the desired traits continue.







Answer: C

The drug cytochalasin B blocks the function of actin. Which of the following aspects of the cell cycle would be most disrupted by cytochalasin B?

The drug cytochalasin B blocks the function of actin. Which of the following aspects of the cell cycle would be most disrupted by cytochalasin B? 





A) spindle formation
B) spindle attachment to kinetochores
C) DNA synthesis
D) cell elongation during anaphase
E) cleavage furrow formation and cytokinesis





Answer: E

One difference between cancer cells and normal cells is that cancer cells

One difference between cancer cells and normal cells is that cancer cells 





A) are unable to synthesize DNA.
B) are arrested at the S phase of the cell cycle.
C) continue to divide even when they are tightly packed together.
D) cannot function properly because they are affected by density-dependent inhibition.
E) are always in the M phase of the cell cycle.






Answer: C

Vinblastine is a standard chemotherapeutic drug used to treat cancer. Because it interferes with the assembly of microtubules, its effectiveness must be related to

Vinblastine is a standard chemotherapeutic drug used to treat cancer. Because it interferes with the assembly of microtubules, its effectiveness must be related to 






A) disruption of mitotic spindle formation.
B) inhibition of regulatory protein phosphorylation.
C) suppression of cyclin production.
D) myosin denaturation and inhibition of cleavage furrow formation.
E) inhibition of DNA synthesis.






Answer: A

Through a microscope, you can see a cell plate beginning to develop across the middle of a cell and nuclei forming on either side of the cell plate. This cell is most likely

Through a microscope, you can see a cell plate beginning to develop across the middle of a cell and nuclei forming on either side of the cell plate. This cell is most likely 






A) an animal cell in the process of cytokinesis.
B) a plant cell in the process of cytokinesis.
C) an animal cell in the S phase of the cell cycle.
D) a bacterial cell dividing.
E) a plant cell in metaphase.





Answer: B

A student is looking through his light microscope (~450 X) at a squashed and stained onion root tip. Some, but not all, of the cells have clearly visible chromosome strands.

A student is looking through his light microscope (~450 X) at a squashed and stained onion root tip. Some, but not all, of the cells have clearly visible chromosome strands. 



When a cell is in anaphase of mitosis, which of the following will he see? 

A) a clear area in the center of the cell
B) chromosomes clustered at the poles
C) individual chromatids separating
D) chromosomes clustered tightly at the center
E) formation of vesicles at the midline


Answer: A


When the cell has just completed telophase, which of the following does he see? 

A) a clear area in the center of the cell
B) chromosomes clustered at the poles
C) individual chromatids separating
D) formation of vesicles at the midline
E) two small cells with chromatin



Answer: E

The research team established similar lymphocyte cultures from a number of human donors, including healthy teenagers of both genders, patients already suffering from long-term bacterial infections, and elderly volunteers. They found that the increase in lymphocyte incorporation after pathogen introduction was slightly lower in some of the female teenagers and significantly lower in each of the elderly persons. They repeated the study with a larger number of samples but got the same results.

The research team established similar lymphocyte cultures from a number of human donors, including healthy teenagers of both genders, patients already suffering from long-term bacterial infections, and elderly volunteers. They found that the increase in lymphocyte incorporation after pathogen introduction was slightly lower in some of the female teenagers and significantly lower in each of the elderly persons. They repeated the study with a larger number of samples but got the same results. 


What might be among the research team's conclusions? 

A) The young women showed these results because they have poorer nutrition.
B) The elderly persons' samples demonstrated their lowered immune responses.
C) The young men had higher responses because they are generally healthier.
D) The patient samples should have had the lowest response but did not, so the experiment is invalid.
E) The elderly donor samples represent cells no longer capable of any cell division.


Answer: B

Which of the following investigations might be most productive to show what the data on the teenagers might indicate? 

A) test male teenagers
B) test teenagers who say they are not sexually active
C) test female teens at different times in their menstrual cycles
D) test relatives of the teens previously tested
E) test teenagers from different school systems


Answer: C

Nucleotides can be radiolabeled before they are incorporated into newly forming DNA and can therefore be assayed to track their incorporation. In a set of experiments, a student—faculty research team used labeled T nucleotides and introduced these into the culture of dividing human cells at specific times.

Nucleotides can be radiolabeled before they are incorporated into newly forming DNA and can therefore be assayed to track their incorporation. In a set of experiments, a student—faculty research team used labeled T nucleotides and introduced these into the culture of dividing human cells at specific times. 



Which of the following questions might be answered by such a method? 


A) How many cells are produced by the culture per hour?
B) What is the length of the S phase of the cell cycle?
C) When is the S chromosome synthesized?
D) How many picograms of DNA are made per cell cycle?
E) When do spindle fibers attach to chromosomes?


Answer: B


The research team used the setup to study the incorporation of labeled nucleotides into a culture of lymphocytes and found that the lymphocytes incorporated the labeled nucleotide at a significantly higher level after a pathogen was introduced into the culture. They concluded that 

A) the presence of the pathogen made the experiment too contaminated to trust the results.
B) their tissue culture methods needed to be relearned.
C) infection causes lymphocytes to divide more rapidly.
D) infection causes cell cultures in general to reproduce more rapidly.
E) infection causes lymphocyte cultures to skip some parts of the cell cycle.


Answer: C



Once they had determined which cells were dividing, the team wanted to use a non-radioactive method to track whether various physiological factors (such as food or body temperature) affect the action of the pathogen. Which of the following would be effective, simple, and safe? 


A) measuring picograms of DNA
B) measuring numbers of chromosomes
C) measuring numbers of chromatids
D) counting the frequency of cells in mitosis
E) counting newly formed plasma membranes


Answer: D

Several organisms, primarily protists, have what are called intermediate mitotic organization.

Several organisms, primarily protists, have what are called intermediate mitotic organization. 






A) They represent a form of cell reproduction which must have evolved completely separately from those of other organisms.
B) They demonstrate that these species are not closely related to any of the other protists and may well be a different kingdom.
C) They rely on totally different proteins for the processes they undergo.
D) They may be more closely related to plant forms that also have unusual mitosis.
E) They show some but not all of the evolutionary steps toward complete mitosis.






Answer: E